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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q44-Q49):

NEW QUESTION # 44
You are undertaking the retrospective analysis of a laboratory-confirmed influenza A virus outbreak that occurred in a long-term care facility last year. Among the 163 residents in the facility during the outbreak, 101 residents had new-onset fever, cough, myalgias, and congestion. Of these, 37 residents were transferred to acute care. Of these, 17 residents died. Which one of the following is the best estimate of the attack rate in residents at the facility?

A. 17/101.
B. 101/163.
C. 37/101.
D. 37/163.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The attack rate is a measure of cumulative incidence used in outbreak investigations. It represents the proportion of individuals at risk who develop the disease during a specified time period. MCCQE objectives emphasize understanding key epidemiologic measures, particularly in institutional outbreaks.
In this scenario, 163 residents were at risk during the influenza outbreak. Of these, 101 developed new-onset symptoms consistent with influenza. Therefore, the attack rate is calculated as:
Number of new cases ÷ Number of people at risk
= 101 ÷ 163
The number transferred to acute care (37) reflects disease severity but does not represent all cases. The number of deaths (17) would be used to calculate the case fatality rate (17/101), not the attack rate.
Thus, the best estimate of the attack rate among residents is 101/163 , representing the proportion of the at- risk population who became ill during the outbreak.

NEW QUESTION # 45
A 32-year-old woman, gravida 0, comes to your office for contraception counselling, specifically about insertion of a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device. She has a past history of breast cancer and is presently on tamoxifen. Which one of the following is the best advice for your patient?

A. She has a high risk of irregular bleeding following insertion
B. She will require pre-procedure antibiotics
C. This device will increase her risk of future infertility
D. After consultation with her oncologist, she may choose this option
E. It may increase her risk of breast cancer recurrence

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (LNG-IUD) is generally contraindicated in current or recent breast cancer due to the progestin component, but may be considered in selectpatients on tamoxifen, especially if non-hormonal options are unsuitable. Consultation with the oncologist is required to evaluate risks and benefits.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Contraception in Special Populations":
"Levonorgestrel IUDs are generally avoided in patients with a history of hormone-sensitive cancers; however, decisions should be made collaboratively with oncology." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-2: Contraception):
"Candidates must tailor contraceptive advice to patients with medical comorbidities, including cancer survivors." Irregular bleeding (A) is a common but not contraindicating side effect. No pre-procedure antibiotics (D) are typically needed. The IUD does not cause infertility (E). Risk of recurrence (C) is unconfirmed and must be individualized.
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NEW QUESTION # 46
A 62-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, fever and chills. She was hospitalized 4 weeks ago for sigmoid diverticulitis. She felt well after her discharge from hospital until 5 days ago when the fever started.
She is now anorexic. On examination, she has right upper quadrant pain and her temperature is 38.5 °C.
Which one of the following investigations is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

A. Cholescintigraphy (HIDA scan).
B. Chest radiography.
C. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiography.
D. Ultrasound of abdomen.
E. Abdominal radiography.

Answer: D

Explanation:
This patient presents with fever, chills, anorexia, and right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain several weeks after hospitalization for sigmoid diverticulitis . A key complication of intra-abdominal infections such as diverticulitis is portal pylephlebitis with hepatic abscess formation , due to bacterial spread via the portal venous system. MCCQE objectives emphasize recognizing liver abscess as a delayed complication of intra- abdominal sepsis, particularly when new RUQ pain and fever develop after an initial abdominal infection.
The most appropriate initial imaging test to confirm this diagnosis is ultrasound of the abdomen , which can detect hepatic abscesses and guide further management. CT abdomen is also highly sensitive, but among the listed options, ultrasound is most appropriate.
Chest and abdominal radiographs are nonspecific. HIDA scan evaluates cystic duct obstruction in suspected acute cholecystitis, which is less likely given the recent diverticulitis and systemic features. ERCP is used for biliary obstruction or ascending cholangitis, typically associated with jaundice.
Thus, abdominal ultrasound is most likely to confirm a hepatic abscess.

NEW QUESTION # 47
A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of a limp. On examination, he looks well, has a temperature of 38 °C and is able to weight-bear. His hip examination reveals mild decreased range of motion. Radiographs of his hip and pelvis show no abnormality. His C-reactive protein level is 8 mg
/L (< 6). Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Osteomyelitis
B. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
C. Trochanteric bursitis
D. Septic arthritis
E. Transient synovitis

Answer: E

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Transient synovitis is the most common cause of hip pain and limp in children aged 3-10 years. It is often preceded by a viral infection. Patients appear well, can often bear weight, and have only mild to moderate elevation in inflammatory markers. Radiographs are normal.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, "Limping Child":
"Transient synovitis is benign and self-limiting. Presentation includes mild limp, low-grade fever, normal or slightly elevated CRP/ESR, and ability to bear weight." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-2: Musculoskeletal Disorders):
"Candidates must distinguish between transient synovitis and more serious causes of limping, such as septic arthritis." Septic arthritis (A) usually causes inability to bear weight and more significant fever and CRP elevation.
Osteomyelitis (B) typically presents with localized tenderness and systemic signs. Bursitis (D) is rare in young children. JIA (E) is chronic.
-

NEW QUESTION # 48
A 60-year-old man has a strong family history of aortic aneurysms. Screening abdominal ultrasonography reveals an incidental <1 cm mass in his left kidney. Computed tomography confirms that the mass is consistent with renal adenocarcinoma. Which one of the following is the most appropriate step in management?

A. Refer to radiation oncology
B. Arrange magnetic resonance imaging of the abdomen
C. Plan partial nephrectomy
D. Repeat computed tomography in 6 months
E. Organize angiographic ablation of the renal mass

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
For small renal masses (<4 cm), partial nephrectomy (nephron-sparing surgery) is the standard of care in patients who are surgical candidates. It preserves renal function and provides oncologic control.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Urology / Oncology:
"Small renal tumors <4 cm should be treated with partial nephrectomy. Active surveillance or ablation may be alternatives in poor surgical candidates." MCCQE1 Objectives (Urology > 59-2: Renal Masses):
"Candidates must manage small renal tumors with nephron-sparing surgery when feasible." MRI (A) is unnecessary after CT confirmation. Radiation (B) is not first-line. Surveillance (D) may be appropriate for elderly or frail patients, not this one. Ablation (E) is for high-risk surgical patients.
-

NEW QUESTION # 49
......

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